Okay I haven't used these forums a lot and I know the first law is discussed a lot, and I know that my query has probably been dealt with in the past, but, and I haven't read the whole thread to look to see if it's in there, but it's hundreds of posts long or something, so excuse me.
So in my game I am the only one flinging around evocation at all, (well someone just took runic magic, but he won't be attacking with it, and it's not mortal magic anywho) and the ruling on how the first law is broken is pretty harsh.
How it is ruled is that if I damage any mortal with evocation (even by accident or fallout or anything equivalent) whether or not they die I gain the lawbreaker stunt. Because I intended or caused harm it is enough to count as black magic.
From what I understand on the forums from what little I've read you really need to actually kill someone to break the law, like bare minimum, but well I'm not the story teller. The books actually show wizards attacking mortals with magic very rarely, but every once in a while it happens. With harry the story teller's argument is that yes he's breaking the law, he already has the stunt after all. But Morgan attacks Harry with magic in Dead beat, and his argument is yes, Morgan just broke the first law. Personally I don't feel that's the case, I mean Morgan's character is such that he wouldn't break the law even in a rage.
I don't think anything will change this ruling, and I've sort of come to terms with it, and he allows magic weapons to not count depending on what exactly they do, so my +3 weaponry +3 damage value sword if fine, so it's not really a problem per say... It can just become a problem very fast accidentally.
Am I wrong in thinking that you need to actually kill to break the law?