Uhm, Serack and cozarkian, lemme try to return to the original point:
- If I'm understanding your position correctly, you believe there are constraints that limited how Lasciel's Shadow could interact with Harry's conscious mind, particularly between the events at the end of Death Masks and the beginning of Dead Beat. You believe these constraints are the reason why the background Rock & Roll music Harry had been hearing since picking up the coin stopped playing once his conscious mind chose to reject the coin. You believe these constraints are binding enough that Lasciel's Shadow didn't have any way of continuing to play the music, even if it wanted to.
- You then propose that these constraints were loosened by Harry's actions in Blood Rites, namely, his subconscious use of Hellfire. The (elegant) logic behind this belief is that we are told in Dead Beat that his conscious use of Hellfire was required in order to allow Lasciel's Shadow to communicate with Harry's conscious mind. One would expect, then, that Harry's subconscious use of Hellfire would be required in order to allow Lasciel's Shadow to communicate with Harry's subconscious mind.
My questions to you, I'm afraid, remain unanswered, by either you or cozarkian:
- How can the constraints be binding if Lasciel's Shadow managed to "cheat" around them?
- Why did Lasciel's Shadow appear to wait from Blood Rites until Dead Beat before "cheating"?
I don't have a good direct answer to your questions. I might be able to make some vague supositions, but they aren't well supported. When we first started talking about this I actually checked to see if Harry used hellfire again in DB before Shela showed up. Shela showed up immediately before the altercation with Cowl, and after the altercation with Grevane, but pretty much the only magic used against Grevane's zombies was that he blew out his rear window with his ring. Easy answer thus denied to me, the next best answers I have are... hmmmm...
Firstly, Id! Harry (is the ! necessary? I saw you using it I think) said that he had been communicating with the shadow for a few months. BR happened in early Autumn according to the DF Timeline sticky, and DB happens at the end of October, so there was about a year between them. So unless Id! Harry was severly lowballing that rough description of how long they had been communicating, he didn't immediately start talking to her after the first subconcious usage of Hellfire (although until
the godess got recruited as a beta,
there is evidence that Jim ran rather loose with such timeline type stuff. Ergo, in a Doylist sense {it's great to have a name for that now}, that part of the delay might not be terribly important).
The thing is, I like how you go through such a clean logical progression from subconscious to conscious communication with the avenues closed and opened by Harry's concious and subconcious decisions... However Shela was already communicating with Harry's concious mind before he
chose to employ hellfire. So, analizing this to a bloody pulp I get these two ideas:
a) That bit of communication "crossed the line" (Malcolm's words) that shouldn't have been crossed because Harry hadn't conciously embraced any of her temptations, which is kinda handy for attempting to answer your questions in terms that you already call eloquent... maybe.
b) Conciously embracing Hellfire opened a chink in Harry's armor allowing direct offers of corrupting
power. This reasoning is a little delicate, but up to that point, Shela was just building rapport... She did help out a little with finding that book, so obviously some assistance was given... But it wasn't an offering of power yet. It wasn't truely corrupting until she could offer such memory recall as an asset available from the Shadow, which is the chink exploited when Harry had her help him remember the Word of Kemmler. (I just realized that this perfect memory recall dovetails very well into the perfect recollection of the GS flashbacks... which sends a lot of new thoughts swirling through my brain...)
So in attempting to directly answer your questions, the best I can do is that the Shadow was constrained from offering true corrupting power to Harry but "cheated" by building rapport with his concious mind as Shela before he conciously accepted power (Hellfire) from her. The pushing the envelope was only available to her because of his subconciously accepting the power (and his subconcious communicating with her in the time since), and she chose to pull that card dispite the consequences of "crossing the line" because she saw that he was undergoing some stressful situations that were likely to cause him to embrace the Hellfire she managed to offer his subconcious, and would thus give her lots of opportunities to offer him tantalizing power through the course of the events of DB. Plus, the reader can't experience the intricacies of the plotline unless those intracies happen in "the worst weekend of Harry's year" as Jim calls the "case files."
Notice that the opening of PG (which I am reading now) sees Lasciel manifesting before Harry's concious mind unbidden for the first time since the events of DB because she sensed that the stressful events to come would offer her more opportunities to offer him corrupting power. (Ref ch 3 of PG)
In all fairness, I did ask a third question that did get answered by both you and cozarkian, namely, how did Lasciel's Shadow fail after three years whereas other Shadows succeed in a few weeks at most (or presumably, fail completely in a shorter span of time). Cozarkian proposed that the temptation process was inherently different from Harry's in most cases, heavily skewed toward the Shadows' favor. When I suggested that such a system didn't seem consistent to me, you replied saying that there's no reason to expect the system to seem fair from our perspective. I can't really argue that point, so I shall concede it.
Still, my two questions above remain unanswered. My proposed answer to them is the following:
- At some point, Lasciel's Shadow was free to act in a certain way and chose to wait until her actions had maximum impact before acting. I believe we can all agree a time period like that existed between Blood Rites and Dead Beat. Just to clarify, by "free to act" I don't mean there would be no consequences for her actions; what I mean is, there were constraints stopping her from acting.
- The idea that Lasciel's Shadow was constrained from acting in a certain way ("cheating") during one time period and then later chose not to act in that exact certain way until a time of her choosing has more moving parts to it than the idea that she just chose to not act in that way ("cheating") until a time of her own choosing from the very beginning. Occam's Razor would suggest that maybe there was never any constraint on her actions in the first place.
- The fact that that it still counted as "cheating" when she finally acted means that she was either unaware that there would be consequences (unlikely) or she believed the consequences were worth it. Meaning, the consequences did not have the power to stop her from cheating at that point in time, which suggests that nothing had the power to stop her from cheating earlier, either. Since the act that has been defined as "cheating" is at the very least the same as playing music, and nothing could stop Lasciel's Shadow from cheating, nothing could stop her from playing music, either.
The thing is, the story goes through a lot of trouble to describe how there were lines and limits on what the shadow could do (Ref, the 2 dream sceens, 1 with Malcome, the other with the shadow and hot tub. Interesting the symbolism in that in the Malcolm dream Harry was cold and uncomfortable, and Malcolm allowed him to mix his own Coffee to warm up... compared to Harry waking up in a luxurious hot tub he had never experienced before.) Your Occam's Razor argument is not strong enough for me to just throw away all that world building effort.
Another Doylist monkey wrench, is that when Jim wrote in the Lasciel Shadow plot, and BR, he had intended for the events of Proven Guilty to precede the events of Dead Beat. Jim switched the two because of book 7 being the first hard cover release. This gives another strong Doylist argument for why the Shadow's progressive interactions were a little disjointed.
In other news, both sides seem to agree that the magic empowering the circle in and of itself did absolutely nothing to limit the coin or Lasciel's Shadow. Granted, you believe the act of empowering the circle did limit the access Lasciel's Shadow had to Harry's conscious mind, but at least we agree on something, no?
To me, those two statements are completely contradictory... My conceptualization of DV magic is the altering of reality with your will. So in those terms Harry's empowering the circle was a willful alteration of Lasciel's ability to influence him. Thus it was a sucessful magical spell, not an empty gesture that did absolutely nothing.