Decided to go back to this with our recent convo. How is it important if he gave up such things or if his fortune is part of any bargain if original bargain not in place? it seems illogical to argue about something then turn around and say it's not applicable. I'm confuzzled by the logic here, explain?
Ok, retracing our steps:
The tangent started on the
assertion that Mort and Harry were different because Mort /expected/ to make money from his magic and was Failing, whereas Harry was different (I wasnt every entirely clear on why you thought so).
I asserted that Harry's historic lifestyle of barely scrapping by on a PI's income and living in a constantly derided hole in the ground was in large parts a result of the Bargain he made as a child, supported by the observation it only began to turn around after that bargain was out of play (ie after SK).
We debated the likelihood of that based on the different usages of "Fortune" with me in favor of the monetary wealth definition and you preferring the "Luck" side of it.
The you said that the recent monetary windfall in SG might change my mind on the Money Vs Luck definition of Fortune, but I said that isnt a useful datapoint because it happened long after the bargain restricting his ability to amass a "Fortune" had long since been circumvented.
Does that make sense?